ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increased dyspnea and cough productive of purulent sputum. On auscultation, coarse crackles are heard bilaterally. Which complication of COPD is the patient most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient with a history of COPD presenting with increased dyspnea, cough productive of purulent sputum, and coarse crackles on auscultation is most likely experiencing an acute exacerbation of COPD. Acute exacerbations in COPD are defined as sustained worsening of the patient's respiratory symptoms beyond normal day-to-day variations, leading to a change in medication. Common triggers for exacerbations include respiratory infections, air pollution, and non-compliance with medications.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with well-demarcated, hypopigmented macules with fine scaling, affecting the trunk and proximal extremities. The patient reports a history of sun exposure and outdoor activities. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of well-demarcated, hypopigmented macules with fine scaling on the trunk and proximal extremities is classic for tinea versicolor. Tinea versicolor is a common superficial fungal infection caused by Malassezia spp., which leads to hypo- or hyperpigmented patches on the skin. The condition often occurs in individuals with increased sebum production due to factors such as hot and humid climates, sweating, and oily skin. History of sun exposure and outdoor activities is also commonly reported by patients with tinea versicolor. Treatment usually involves antifungal medications applied topically or taken orally to eliminate the fungus. Differentiating tinea versicolor from other skin conditions, such as vitiligo, pityriasis rosea, or seborrheic keratosis, is important for appropriate management.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with a history of recurrent nosebleeds, easy bruising, and gum bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time and normal platelet count, PT, and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Von Willebrand disease is a hereditary bleeding disorder that results from a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), a protein that plays a key role in platelet adhesion and the initiation of primary hemostasis. The clinical manifestations of von Willebrand disease include recurrent mucocutaneous bleeding, such as nosebleeds, easy bruising, and gum bleeding. Laboratory findings typically show a prolonged bleeding time due to impaired platelet function, while platelet count, PT (prothrombin time), and aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) are usually normal. This distinguishes von Willebrand disease from other bleeding disorders such as hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency), which would show abnormal PT and aPTT due to deficiencies in specific clotting factors. Thrombocytopenia, on the other hand, would be characterized by a low platelet count
Question 4 of 5
During surgery, the nurse notices that the patient's temperature is dropping below the normal range. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a patient's temperature is dropping below the normal range during surgery, the nurse should prioritize actively warming the patient to prevent hypothermia. Administering a warming blanket or using a forced-air warming device are effective methods to increase the patient's body temperature and prevent any complications that may arise from hypothermia. Increasing the ambient room temperature can help, but it may not be as direct or effective as applying targeted heat sources to the patient. Documenting the temperature trend in the patient's chart is important for record-keeping purposes, but immediate action to address the dropping temperature is necessary. Continuously monitoring the patient's temperature closely is important, but action should be taken promptly to prevent further decline.
Question 5 of 5
Whose responsibility is it to obtain informed consent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The responsibility of obtaining informed consent typically falls on the physician or the healthcare provider who is performing the procedure or treatment. Informed consent is a process where the healthcare provider explains the procedure, its risks, benefits, possible alternatives, and potential outcomes to the patient or their legal representative. The patient must have a comprehensive understanding of these aspects before agreeing to the treatment. While nurses, nurse managers, anesthesiologists, midwives, and other healthcare professionals may assist in the consent process by providing information or clarifications, the ultimate responsibility lies with the physician. This is because the physician is usually the one with the expertise and knowledge about the specific procedure or treatment being performed.
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