Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ELISA and Western Blot. The rationale is as follows: ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) and Western Blot are specific tests used to confirm HIV infection by detecting antibodies or antigens related to the virus. ELISA is the initial screening test, while Western Blot is the confirmatory test. These tests are highly sensitive and specific for HIV detection. Choice A is incorrect because CD4+ cell count and thymus function are not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are used to monitor disease progression and immune function in HIV-positive individuals. Choice C is incorrect because B-cell and T-cell count are also not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are indicators of immune system health but not specific for HIV diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because while CD4+ and viral load tests are used in monitoring HIV progression, ELISA is the main confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis, and viral load is not typically used for initial

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bleeding gums and dark tarry stools. Thrombocytes are platelets responsible for blood clotting. Medications that depress thrombocytes can lead to decreased clotting ability, resulting in bleeding tendencies. Bleeding gums and dark tarry stools are common signs of bleeding due to decreased platelet function. A: Sore throat and swollen glands are more indicative of a possible infection or inflammation, not related to thrombocyte depression. B: Pernicious anemia with weakness is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency, not directly related to thrombocyte depression. D: Thickening of blood and bruising are not typical signs of decreased platelet function, but rather may be indicative of other conditions like clotting disorders.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessment data should be collected continuously to ensure timely detection of any changes in the client's condition. This allows for prompt interventions and prevents complications. Choice B is incorrect as assessment should be ongoing and not limited to specific times. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of assessment should be based on client needs, not a fixed schedule. Choice D is incorrect as assessments should not be limited to certain times but should be ongoing to provide comprehensive care.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "There is an increase in the intraocular pressure." Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve due to increased pressure within the eye. High intraocular pressure is a key factor in the development of glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect because glaucoma is not associated with an increase in vitreous humor. Choice C is incorrect as glaucoma is not related to a decrease in aqueous humor. Choice D is incorrect because glaucoma is characterized by an increase, not a decrease, in intraocular pressure. Therefore, the most accurate description to explain glaucoma to a patient is the one that mentions the increase in intraocular pressure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A: Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) is an antihistamine commonly used to treat allergic reactions, including those from bee stings. It can help alleviate symptoms like itching and swelling. Keeping Benadryl on hand is crucial for managing an allergic reaction promptly. Other Choices: B: Guaifenesin (Robitussin) is an expectorant used to treat coughs, not allergic reactions. C: Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride (Sudafed) is a decongestant used for nasal congestion, not allergic reactions. D: Loperamide (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal used to treat diarrhea, not allergic reactions.