ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences intractable pain despite receiving opioid medications. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because referring the patient to a pain management specialist for evaluation is essential in this scenario. The specialist can conduct a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying causes of the intractable pain and recommend a tailored pain management plan. This approach ensures a multidisciplinary approach to address the complex nature of the patient's pain. Choice A is incorrect because simply increasing the dosage of the current opioid medication may not effectively address the underlying cause of the pain and can lead to potential side effects or opioid tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as switching to a different opioid medication without a thorough evaluation may not guarantee better pain control and can increase the risk of adverse effects or inadequate pain relief. Choice C is incorrect as administering adjuvant analgesic medications without addressing the root cause of the pain may not provide adequate pain relief and does not address the need for a specialized pain management plan.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by the wearing away of tooth structure due to friction from external sources such as toothbrushing or abrasive toothpaste?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Abrasion. Abrasion is the wearing away of tooth structure due to friction from external sources like toothbrushing or abrasive toothpaste. Dental caries (A) refers to tooth decay caused by bacteria. Attrition (B) is the wearing down of tooth structure due to tooth-to-tooth contact. Erosion (D) is the loss of tooth structure from acid attacks, not friction. Therefore, option C is the most fitting choice based on the description given.
Question 3 of 5
At the pre-Entry phase, which of the following is the FIRST step in the CO-PAR process
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Create a core group. In the CO-PAR process, creating a core group is the first step in the pre-Entry phase as it establishes a team of committed individuals who will lead the participatory action research. This core group will provide leadership, coordination, and represent the diversity of the community. Surveying the community (choice A) comes after forming the core group to gather information. Training the technical working group (choice B) and holding a community assembly (choice C) are subsequent steps in the process after the core group is established.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with excessive thirst, large volumes of dilute urine, and low urine osmolality. Laboratory tests reveal hypernatremia and elevated serum osmolality. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetes insipidus. This condition is characterized by excessive thirst, large volumes of dilute urine, low urine osmolality, hypernatremia, and elevated serum osmolality. The underlying cause is a deficiency in or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine properly. Hyperthyroidism (choice A) and hypothyroidism (choice B) do not directly affect urine concentration. While diabetes mellitus (choice C) can also present with polyuria and polydipsia, it would typically have high urine osmolality due to the presence of glucose. Therefore, diabetes insipidus is the most likely endocrine disorder responsible for these specific symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
A 20-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain and missed menstrual periods for the past two months. She has a positive urine pregnancy test. On transvaginal ultrasound, an empty uterus is visualized, and there is fluid in the cul-de-sac. Which condition is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. In this scenario, the combination of missed periods, positive pregnancy test, and empty uterus on ultrasound with fluid in the cul-de-sac is highly suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. The presence of fluid in the cul-de-sac indicates possible blood from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, causing the severe lower abdominal pain. Ovarian cyst rupture (A) typically presents with less severe pain. Septic abortion (C) would present with signs of infection and products of conception in the uterus. Ovarian torsion (D) would present with acute onset of unilateral lower abdominal pain and a palpable adnexal mass, not fluid in the cul-de-sac.
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