Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with swelling of the ankles, dyspnea on exertion, and orthopnea. An echocardiogram reveals decreased left ventricular ejection fraction and dilated left ventricle. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient's presentation of swelling of the ankles, dyspnea on exertion, and orthopnea is highly suggestive of heart failure. The echocardiogram findings of decreased left ventricular ejection fraction and dilated left ventricle are characteristic of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), also known as systolic heart failure. In this condition, the heart's ability to pump blood effectively is compromised, leading to symptoms of congestion and decreased cardiac output. The decreased ejection fraction indicates that the heart is not able to efficiently pump out blood with each contraction. Dilatation of the left ventricle is a compensatory mechanism in response to increased volume overload.

Question 2 of 5

A patient is going for a coronary arterial by-pass graft (CABG) due to a 4 blocked arterial blood vessels. A surgical team has been formed with the cardiac surgeon as the head. Who is the member of the health team that prepares the pre-operative orders for the patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The member of the health team responsible for preparing pre-operative orders for a patient undergoing surgery, such as a coronary arterial bypass graft (CABG), is typically the anesthesiologist. Anesthesiologists are specialized physicians who are trained to administer anesthesia and manage the patient's well-being during surgery. They are responsible for assessing the patient's medical history, determining the appropriate anesthesia plan, and prescribing pre-operative medications. Cardiologists focus on diagnosing and treating heart conditions, surgeons perform the actual surgical procedure, and medical internists specialize in the diagnosis and non-surgical treatment of internal diseases. The anesthesiologist plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and comfort of the patient before, during, and after surgery.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with bruising, petechiae, and mucosal bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) with decreased platelet count. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by widespread activation of coagulation leading to both thrombosis and hemorrhage. In patients with chronic liver disease, especially in the setting of advanced cirrhosis, DIC can develop due to factors such as decreased synthesis of coagulation factors and impaired clearance of activated clotting factors. The patient in this scenario presents with signs of both abnormal bleeding (bruising, petechiae, mucosal bleeding) and laboratory findings consistent with DIC, including prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) along with decreased platelet count.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described is consistent with anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis involves inflammation of the iris and ciliary body. Patients typically present with symptoms such as redness, pain, photophobia, and blurred vision. The slit-lamp examination findings of ciliary injection (redness and dilation of blood vessels in the iris and ciliary body), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light (due to ciliary muscle spasm causing decreased accommodation) are characteristic of anterior uveitis. This condition is often idiopathic but can be associated with various systemic diseases like ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, and other autoimmune disorders. Treatment involves addressing the inflammation with topical corticosteroids and, in some cases, cycloplegic agents to reduce pain and inflammation.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following is caused by the markedly distended uterus and intermittent uterine contractions within 2 to 3 days after birth?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Uterine atony is caused by the markedly distended uterus and intermittent uterine contractions within 2 to 3 days after birth. It is characterized by the inability of the uterus to contract after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding postpartum. This condition is a significant risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. Treatment may involve massage of the uterus, administration of uterotonics, and in severe cases, surgical interventions such as a hysterectomy. Retained placenta refers to incomplete expulsion of the placenta after delivery. Afterpains are the discomfort felt by some women as their uterus contracts and returns to its normal size after childbirth. A boggy uterus is another term for a uterus that feels soft, lax, or lack firm tone, which can be a sign of uterine atony.

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