Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with pruritic, erythematous patches with silvery scales on the elbows, knees, and scalp. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Psoriasis. Psoriasis is characterized by pruritic, erythematous patches with silvery scales, commonly found on the elbows, knees, and scalp. This presentation matches the patient's symptoms. Eczema (choice A) typically presents with red, inflamed, and itchy skin patches. Pityriasis rosea (choice C) manifests as a herald patch followed by smaller scaly patches in a "Christmas tree" distribution. Seborrheic dermatitis (choice D) involves oily, yellowish, scaly patches mainly on the scalp, face, and ears, and does not typically present with silvery scales.

Question 2 of 5

While patient Sarah is confined in the hospital, the safety measure to be observed by the nurses is prevention from fall. This is brought about by the patient being prone to fracture as a result of________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weakened bones, making individuals more susceptible to fractures, especially with minor trauma or falls. In the context of a patient prone to fractures, nurses should be particularly cautious about fall prevention. A: The aging process alone does not necessarily lead to an increased risk of fractures. While aging is a risk factor for osteoporosis, it is not the direct cause of fractures in this case. C: Changes in vision can contribute to an increased risk of falls, but it is not the primary reason for the patient being prone to fractures in this scenario. D: Hematologic conditions may affect bone health, but they are not typically the primary cause of increased fracture risk in patients.

Question 3 of 5

What is the primary goal of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in a cardiac arrest situation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of CPR is to restore spontaneous circulation and oxygenation to the body to maintain vital organ function. By performing chest compressions and rescue breaths, CPR aims to circulate oxygenated blood to the brain and other vital organs. This is crucial to prevent brain damage and increase the chances of survival. The other choices are incorrect because CPR does not address the underlying cause of cardiac arrest (A), provide pain relief (C), or prevent further complications such as organ failure (D). The immediate focus in a cardiac arrest situation is to maintain blood flow and oxygen delivery to vital organs until advanced medical care can be provided.

Question 4 of 5

When a nurse commits an error in the progress notes the BEST action she should do is to

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to choose option C: put a line across the sentence, make the correction over it, and sign. This method is recommended because it maintains the integrity of the original record by showing what was initially written and clearly indicating the correction. By crossing out the error, making the correction, and signing the entry, the nurse acknowledges and takes responsibility for the mistake while ensuring the accuracy and transparency of the documentation. Option A is incorrect as crossing the error many times can make the note illegible and may not clearly indicate the correction. Option B is incorrect because using correction fluid can make the note messy and may raise suspicions of tampering with the record. Option D is incorrect as erasing with a rubber eraser can damage the document and also raise concerns about the validity of the information. In summary, option C is the best choice as it allows for a clear and professional correction without compromising the integrity of the progress notes.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following interventions is recommended for managing a patient with suspected pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Empiric antibiotic therapy directed against common pathogens. This is recommended for managing PID because it helps treat the infection and prevent complications. Antibiotics target the underlying bacterial infection causing PID. Surgical exploration (B) is not the initial treatment for PID. Hormonal therapy (C) is not indicated for PID management. Symptomatic treatment with NSAIDs (D) can help with pain but does not address the infection itself.

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.

Call to Action Image