ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan reveals a mismatched defect. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary embolism. This is the most likely cause of the symptoms based on the presentation of chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and a mismatched defect on the V/Q scan. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, causing a blockage in the pulmonary artery. This can lead to symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, and coughing up blood. The V/Q scan showing a mismatched defect indicates a ventilation-perfusion mismatch, which is a classic finding in pulmonary embolism. Pericarditis (B), acute myocardial infarction (C), and aortic dissection (D) typically present with different sets of symptoms and do not match the V/Q scan findings in this case.
Question 2 of 5
Treatment of a patient without consent can constitute which is defined as intentional and unwanting touching.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: battery. Battery is the intentional and unwanted touching of another person without their consent, which can include medical treatment without consent. This is a clear violation of the patient's autonomy and can lead to legal consequences. Negligence (B) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, not intentional touching. Slander (C) is making false spoken statements that harm someone's reputation. Tort (D) is a broader term referring to civil wrongs, including battery, but not specifically addressing intentional and unwanted touching.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with suspected community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is empirically started on antibiotic therapy pending culture results. Which of the following antibiotic regimens provides appropriate coverage for typical bacterial pathogens commonly implicated in CAP?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Ceftriaxone covers Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common pathogen in CAP, while azithromycin covers atypical pathogens like Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam (choice B) are not first-line treatments for CAP. Ampicillin-sulbactam and levofloxacin (choice C) cover some pathogens but not as comprehensively as ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Clindamycin and cefepime (choice D) do not provide adequate coverage for typical CAP pathogens.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. Which adverse effect is associated with long-term use of inhaled corticosteroids?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Osteoporosis. Long-term use of inhaled corticosteroids can lead to decreased bone density and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Corticosteroids can interfere with calcium absorption and bone formation, resulting in bone weakening. Oral thrush (Choice A) is a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids, but it is not associated with long-term use. Hypertension (Choice B) and hyperglycemia (Choice C) are more commonly seen with systemic corticosteroid use rather than inhaled corticosteroids.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of brief, severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve. Episodes are triggered by touch, chewing, or cold exposure. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trigeminal neuralgia. This condition is characterized by recurrent, severe, stabbing pain in the trigeminal nerve distribution triggered by touch, chewing, or cold exposure. The key feature is the characteristic lancinating pain, which is not typical of migraine (choice A), cluster headache (choice B), or tension-type headache (choice C). Migraine typically presents with pulsating, moderate to severe headache associated with nausea and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headache is characterized by severe, unilateral pain around the eye associated with autonomic symptoms. Tension-type headache presents with bilateral, pressing or tightening pain without specific triggers. Therefore, based on the description of the symptoms in the question, trigeminal neuralgia is the most likely diagnosis.
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