microbiology chapter 10 test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is the likely causative agent as it is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium known to cause ulcerated lesions with associated fever and malaise. Anthrax typically presents with these symptoms and fits the description given in the question. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) causes gas gangrene and typically presents with different symptoms. Clostridium tetani (Choice C) causes tetanus and is not associated with ulcerated lesions. Bacillus cereus (Choice D) is known for causing food poisoning and does not typically present with the symptoms described in the question.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: cytopathic effect. When viruses infect cell cultures, they induce degenerative changes known as cytopathic effects, which include cell shrinkage, rounding, detachment, and cell death. This term specifically refers to the damage caused by viral replication within the cells. A: Cytolytic effect refers to the destruction of cells by viruses, which is a more specific type of cytopathic effect involving cell lysis. C: Cytotoxic effect typically refers to the toxic effects of substances on cells, not specifically related to viral propagation. D: The statement that all three answers are correct is incorrect as only option B accurately describes the degenerative changes resulting from viral propagation in infected cell cultures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Vibrio cholerae produces the exotoxin responsible for severe diarrhea. It causes cholera by disrupting the normal functioning of the intestines. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not diarrhea. Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat and skin infections. Salmonella enterica causes food poisoning, not severe diarrhea. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystatin. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically used to treat candida infections. It works by disrupting the cell membrane of the fungus, leading to its death. Penicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not fungal. Streptomycin (C) is also an antibiotic used for bacterial infections. Isoniazid (D) is used to treat tuberculosis, not candida infections. Therefore, Nystatin is the best choice for treating candida infections due to its antifungal properties.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-negative rods: E. coli is a Gram-negative rod bacterium. 2. Fermented lactose: E. coli is known to ferment lactose. 3. Common cause of diarrhea: E. coli is a common causative agent of infectious diarrhea. Summary: B: Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not typically associated with lactose fermentation. C: Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not known for lactose fermentation. D: Proteus vulgaris is not a common cause of infectious diarrhea and does not typically ferment lactose.