ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels. This is important for the effectiveness of medroxyprogesterone acetate. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not need to be taken with food. Choice B is irrelevant as sun exposure is not a concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can lead to adverse effects.
Question 2 of 5
A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.
Question 3 of 5
A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An attenuated antigen used in a vaccine is alive but less infectious, aiming to stimulate an immune response. Choice B is incorrect because an attenuated antigen is not highly infectious. Choice C is incorrect as the antigen is intentionally altered to be less infectious. Choice D is incorrect as an attenuated antigen is not infectious.
Question 4 of 5
How can a colony-stimulating factor affect the patient's erythrocyte count?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Colony-stimulating factors are substances that stimulate the production of blood cells in the bone marrow. Erythrocytes are red blood cells, so a colony-stimulating factor would specifically stimulate the growth of red blood cells, leading to an increase in the patient's erythrocyte count. Choice B is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not suppress T-cell production. Choice C is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not inhibit protein synthesis. Choice D is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not stimulate antibody production; they primarily affect the production of blood cells.
Question 5 of 5
The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Botulism in infants is often linked to honey consumption. Asking the parents if they have ever given their child any honey or honey-containing products can provide crucial information for the differential diagnosis. This is important because infant botulism is commonly associated with the ingestion of honey contaminated with Clostridium botulinum spores. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant to botulism in infants as they do not directly relate to the typical causes of the condition. Family history of neuromuscular diseases (choice B) may be important for other conditions but not specifically for infant botulism. Direct exposure to chemical cleaning products (choice C) and the presence of mold in the home (choice D) are not typical risk factors for infant botulism.
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