Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers

Questions 164

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for heart failure. Which laboratory parameter should the nurse monitor closely during ACE inhibitor therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should monitor serum potassium levels closely during ACE inhibitor therapy because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in serum potassium levels, known as hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which in turn decreases aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone normally acts in the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water and excrete potassium. Therefore, when aldosterone secretion is decreased due to ACE inhibitor therapy, there can be an increase in potassium retention, potentially leading to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for evaluating a woman with suspected cervical dysplasia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Colposcopy with biopsy is the most appropriate diagnostic test for evaluating a woman with suspected cervical dysplasia. Colposcopy is a procedure in which a special magnifying instrument called a colposcope is used to examine the cervix for any abnormal areas. If abnormal tissue is identified during colposcopy, a biopsy will be taken to confirm the presence of cervical dysplasia and determine the severity. This allows for a more accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Pap smear, although a screening test for cervical dysplasia, may not provide a definitive diagnosis and may require further evaluation with colposcopy and biopsy. Endometrial biopsy and transvaginal ultrasound are not indicated for evaluating cervical dysplasia specifically.

Question 3 of 5

Primary care nursing is organized so that the patient is at the center of the structure. How many nurses have 24-hour responsibility for care planning and coordination?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In primary care nursing, typically, one nurse is designated to have 24-hour responsibility for care planning and coordination for each patient. This helps ensure continuity of care and accountability. By having one nurse overseeing all aspects of the patient's care, it allows for a more personalized and coordinated approach that puts the patient at the center of the care structure. Having one primary care nurse also promotes better communication, efficiency, and consistency in managing the patient's health and well-being.

Question 4 of 5

A postpartum client who delivered a preterm infant expresses concerns about milk supply and worries about meeting the baby's nutritional needs. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address the client's concerns?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Providing education on techniques to enhance milk production and supply should be prioritized to address the client's concerns about milk supply and meeting the baby's nutritional needs. By educating the client on proper breastfeeding techniques, frequent nursing sessions, skin-to-skin contact, and the importance of staying hydrated, the nurse can help promote successful breastfeeding and potentially increase milk production. Supplemental formula feedings are not the first line of intervention, as breastfeeding should be encouraged, especially for a preterm infant who may benefit significantly from breast milk. Encouraging the client to avoid breastfeeding until the infant reaches full term is not appropriate, as breastfeeding can still be beneficial for a preterm infant. Referring the client to a dietitian for specialized nutritional support may be beneficial, but addressing milk supply concerns through education should be prioritized initially to support breastfeeding success.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of type 2 diabetes Mellitus?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by insulin resistance in the peripheral tissues and defective beta cell secretion with loss of insulin. In type 2 diabetes, there is typically not destruction of beta cells from an autoimmune mechanism that leads to lack of insulin and hyperglycemia as seen in type 1 diabetes mellitus. Instead, in type 2 diabetes, the pancreas initially produces insulin, but the body's cells become resistant to its effects. This results in hyperglycemia due to the inability of the body to properly regulate blood sugar levels. Therefore, choice C is not true for type 2 diabetes mellitus.

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