ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about PPI therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patients prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) should be instructed to take the medication 30 minutes before meals. This is because PPIs work best when taken on an empty stomach, allowing them to inhibit the gastric proton pump effectively and reduce acid production in anticipation of food intake. Taking the medication before meals ensures optimal absorption and effectiveness in controlling symptoms of GERD.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following medications is commonly used for the management of overactive bladder (OAB) symptoms such as urinary urgency and frequency?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oxybutynin is a medication commonly used for the management of overactive bladder (OAB) symptoms such as urinary urgency and frequency. It belongs to a class of medications known as anticholinergics, which work by relaxing the bladder muscles and reducing bladder spasms. By doing so, it helps to decrease the symptoms of OAB, including frequent urination, sudden urges to urinate, and leakage. Oxybutynin can be taken orally in tablet form, as a transdermal patch, or as a gel, providing various options for patients based on their preferences and needs. Overall, oxybutynin is an effective treatment option for individuals experiencing overactive bladder symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with sudden onset of severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. The patient reports a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The sudden onset of severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus in a patient with a recent upper respiratory tract infection is highly suggestive of vestibular neuritis. Vestibular neuritis is typically caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often following a viral infection such as an upper respiratory tract infection. This condition presents with acute, severe, continuous vertigo without associated hearing loss. The presence of nystagmus, along with the absence of hearing loss, helps differentiate vestibular neuritis from Meniere's disease (which typically presents with episodic vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus) and acoustic neuroma (which presents with gradual onset of symptoms including unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, and imbalance). Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) typically presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by specific head movements, rather than the continuous vertigo seen in this case.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with a pruritic, annular rash with fine scaling and central clearing, affecting the trunk and proximal extremities. The patient reports recent exposure to a new soap and laundry detergent. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation described is consistent with nummular eczema, also known as discoid eczema. Nummular eczema typically presents as circular or oval-shaped patches of eczematous rash with fine scaling and central clearing. It is often pruritic and can be triggered by exposure to irritants such as new soaps or laundry detergents. The distribution on the trunk and proximal extremities is also typical for nummular eczema. Tinea corporis (ringworm) would present with a more raised, scaly, and well-defined border with central clearing. Pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by smaller oval or round lesions in a "Christmas tree" distribution. Lichen planus would present with polygonal, purplish, flat-topped papules typically located on flexural surfaces and extremities.
Question 5 of 5
As part of the teaching plan, Nurse Angie teaches that oral contraceptives contains estrogen. Which of the following is the Action of Estrogen? It inhibits the _______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Estrogen exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus by inhibiting the release of GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone). GnRH plays a crucial role in the regulation of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) production from the pituitary gland. By inhibiting the release of GnRH, estrogen ultimately leads to a decrease in FSH and LH levels. This process helps to suppress the maturation of the egg and ovulation, providing contraceptive effects.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access