Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final

Questions 164

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers are often prescribed for the management of hypertension because they can help relax blood vessels and slow the heart rate, thus reducing blood pressure. One of the major adverse effects associated with calcium channel blockers is bradycardia (slow heart rate) or even more rarely, tachycardia (fast heart rate). Therefore, in a patient prescribed a calcium channel blocker for hypertension, the nurse should closely monitor for any signs and symptoms of tachycardia as it can be a serious adverse effect that needs prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent complications.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is preparing to perform a continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) procedure for a patient following urological surgery. What action should the nurse prioritize to prevent complications during CBI?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize adjusting the irrigation flow rate based on the patient's urine output to prevent complications during continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). Proper adjustment of the irrigation flow rate helps maintain adequate bladder drainage while preventing bladder distention, clot formation, and potential irrigation fluid overload. Monitoring the patient's urine output and adjusting the flow rate accordingly ensures optimal functioning of the CBI system and enhances patient safety. This proactive approach minimizes the risk of complications and promotes effective postoperative care following urological surgery.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease presents with weakness, anorexia, and confusion. Laboratory tests reveal severe anemia, low reticulocyte count, elevated serum creatinine, and decreased erythropoietin levels. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) presenting with weakness, anorexia, confusion, severe anemia, low reticulocyte count, elevated serum creatinine, and decreased erythropoietin levels is most consistent with renal failure-associated anemia. In CKD, the kidneys are unable to produce adequate amounts of erythropoietin, a hormone responsible for stimulating red blood cell production in the bone marrow. The decreased erythropoietin levels lead to a state of anemia, characterized by low hemoglobin levels and subsequent symptoms of fatigue and weakness. The anemia in renal failure is typically normocytic and normochromic. Additionally, the elevated serum creatinine in this patient is a hallmark of kidney dysfunction.

Question 4 of 5

A 28-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. On pelvic examination, tender nodules are palpated along the uterosacral ligaments. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Endometriosis is a chronic gynecologic condition characterized by the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, commonly on structures within the pelvis. The classic symptoms of endometriosis include cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and infertility. On pelvic examination, tender nodules or masses may be palpated along the uterosacral ligaments. These nodules are often referred to as "endometriotic implants" or "chocolate cysts." Endometriosis can cause inflammation, scarring, and adhesions in the pelvis, leading to symptoms such as pain and infertility. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is characterized by ovarian dysfunction and hormonal imbalances, often leading to irregular periods and symptoms related to excess androgens. Adenomyosis is the presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium of the uterus, leading

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following cell types is primarily responsible for the production of antibodies during the humoral immune response?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Plasma cells are the primary type of cells responsible for the production of antibodies during the humoral immune response. When activated by antigens, B cells differentiate into plasma cells, which are specialized in producing large quantities of antibodies. These antibodies are essential in fighting off infections by binding to antigens and marking them for destruction by other immune cells. T helper cells assist in activating B cells, but the actual production of antibodies is mainly carried out by plasma cells. Memory B cells are involved in mounting a rapid and specific secondary response upon re-exposure to the same antigen. Macrophages play a role in phagocytosis and antigen presentation, but they are not the primary cells responsible for producing antibodies during the humoral immune response.

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.

Call to Action Image