Adult Health Nursing Test Banks

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient is prescribed a beta-blocker for the management of migraine headaches. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Beta-blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on beta receptors in the body. One common adverse effect of beta-blockers is bradycardia, or a slowed heart rate. Since the patient is being prescribed a beta-blocker for migraine headaches, it is important for the nurse to monitor closely for signs and symptoms of bradycardia such as dizziness, fatigue, and fainting. Monitoring the heart rate regularly and reporting any significant decrease to the healthcare provider is essential to prevent complications associated with bradycardia. Compared to the other options, bradycardia is the most relevant adverse effect to monitor in a patient prescribed a beta-blocker.

Question 2 of 5

A postpartum client who is breastfeeding expresses concerns about breast engorgement and discomfort. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to alleviate symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention to alleviate breast engorgement and discomfort in a breastfeeding client is to encourage frequent breastfeeding or pumping sessions. Engorgement occurs when the breasts become overly full of milk, causing them to become swollen, firm, and painful. By ensuring that the baby breastfeeds frequently, the client can effectively empty the breasts, which helps to relieve engorgement and discomfort. Encouraging the client to breastfeed on demand and ensuring proper latching can help prevent further engorgement issues. Pumping can also be useful if the baby is unable to feed directly from the breast or to relieve engorgement between feedings. This intervention addresses the root cause of the problem and promotes the client's comfort and breastfeeding success. Applying cold packs, using a supportive bra or breast binder, and administering oral analgesics may provide some relief for discomfort but do not address the underlying issue of engorgement.

Question 3 of 5

A patient presents with a painless thyroid nodule and hoarseness of voice. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals papillary thyroid carcinoma. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation of a painless thyroid nodule and hoarseness of voice is consistent with papillary thyroid carcinoma, a type of thyroid cancer. While Hashimoto's thyroiditis and Graves' disease are autoimmune thyroid conditions that can lead to thyroid nodules, they typically do not present with hoarseness of voice. Diabetes mellitus does not directly cause these symptoms. Thyroid cancer, particularly papillary thyroid carcinoma, is the most likely cause based on the patient's clinical presentation and the biopsy results.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is preparing to perform an intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring procedure for a patient with traumatic brain injury. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure procedural accuracy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize ensuring proper zeroing and calibration of the ICP monitoring system to ensure procedural accuracy and reliability of the measurements obtained. Proper zeroing involves setting the transducer at the level of the patient's external auditory meatus (ear), which serves as a reference point for accurate ICP readings. Calibration is necessary to establish accurate pressure measurements. Incorrect zeroing or calibration can lead to inaccurate ICP readings, which can impact clinical decision-making for patients with traumatic brain injury. Positioning the patient in a high-Fowler's position, administering prophylactic antibiotics, or placing the ICP monitor in the subarachnoid space via lumbar puncture are not directly related to ensuring the accuracy of the ICP monitoring procedure.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of joint pain, swelling, and limited range of motion in multiple joints. Laboratory tests reveal elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), positive rheumatoid factor (RF), and presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The combination of recurrent joint pain, swelling, and limited range of motion in multiple joints along with elevated ESR, positive RF, and presence of anti-CCP antibodies is classic for rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Elevated ESR indicates inflammation, positive rheumatoid factor (RF) is an autoantibody commonly found in the serum of patients with RA, and the presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies further supports the diagnosis of RA. These laboratory findings along with the clinical presentation are highly suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), ankylosing spondylitis (AS), and psoriatic arthritis (PsA) can have overlapping symptoms with RA, but the specific combination of elevated ESR, positive RF, and anti-CCP antibodies points more towards RA in this scenario.

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