health assessment test bank jarvis

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it describes the setting of the symptoms by specifying when the pain occurs (every time the patient sits down to use the computer). This detail helps identify possible triggers or patterns associated with the pain. Choices A, B, and C focus on the nature or characteristics of the pain rather than the setting, making them incorrect. Choice A describes the type of pain, choice B includes associated symptoms, and choice C reflects the patient's interpretation of the pain, none of which directly address the setting of the symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine output monitoring. This method is the best for assessing fluid balance in a client with kidney disease because the kidneys play a key role in regulating fluid balance by controlling urine production. Monitoring urine output provides direct insight into the body's fluid status and kidney function. Daily weight measurements (A) can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance. Electrolyte panel monitoring (C) assesses electrolyte levels, not fluid balance specifically. Monitoring vital signs (D) can give clues to fluid imbalance but is not as direct or specific as urine output monitoring.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: unexplained vaginal bleeding. This is a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy as it may indicate underlying conditions that need to be addressed before starting hormone therapy to avoid potential risks. Vaginal bleeding could be a sign of endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, which can be exacerbated by hormone therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for hormone replacement therapy. Family history of stroke may influence the choice of therapy but not necessarily contraindicate it. Ovaries removed before age 45 and frequent hot flashes/night sweats are common indications for hormone replacement therapy to alleviate symptoms of menopause.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer IV antibiotics. Administering IV antibiotics is crucial in treating pneumonia as it helps combat the underlying bacterial infection causing pneumonia. Prompt antibiotic therapy can prevent complications and improve patient outcomes. Administering pain medications (B) may help manage symptoms but does not address the root cause. Administering antiemetics (C) may help with nausea and vomiting but does not directly treat pneumonia. Option D is similar to the correct answer but lacks the specificity of IV antibiotics, which are often preferred for severe cases.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention for a hypoglycemic client is to provide 4-6 ounces of fruit juice with sugar. This is because the client needs a quick source of glucose to raise their blood sugar levels rapidly. Fruit juice with sugar is easily absorbed, providing a fast-acting solution to hypoglycemia. Commercially prepared glucose tablets may take longer to be absorbed than fruit juice. Hard candies and honey may not contain enough sugar to raise blood sugar levels quickly compared to fruit juice. Therefore, fruit juice with sugar is the most effective option for immediate intervention in hypoglycemic clients.