Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by worsening dyspnea and increased sputum production. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) for respiratory support. In acute exacerbations of COPD, NIPPV helps improve ventilation and oxygenation, reducing the work of breathing and preventing the need for intubation. This intervention is a priority as it can rapidly stabilize the patient's respiratory status. A: Administering bronchodilator medications is important in COPD management, but in severe exacerbations, NIPPV takes precedence. C: Arterial blood gas analysis is important for assessing oxygenation and ventilation status, but it does not directly address the acute respiratory distress. D: Chest physiotherapy can help with airway clearance in COPD, but in acute exacerbations, respiratory support with NIPPV is more urgent.

Question 2 of 5

When a nurse commits an error in the progress notes the BEST action she should do is to

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to choose option C: put a line across the sentence, make the correction over it, and sign. This method is recommended because it maintains the integrity of the original record by showing what was initially written and clearly indicating the correction. By crossing out the error, making the correction, and signing the entry, the nurse acknowledges and takes responsibility for the mistake while ensuring the accuracy and transparency of the documentation. Option A is incorrect as crossing the error many times can make the note illegible and may not clearly indicate the correction. Option B is incorrect because using correction fluid can make the note messy and may raise suspicions of tampering with the record. Option D is incorrect as erasing with a rubber eraser can damage the document and also raise concerns about the validity of the information. In summary, option C is the best choice as it allows for a clear and professional correction without compromising the integrity of the progress notes.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following data sets can be analyzed on the ratio level of measurement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: pulse rates. Pulse rates can be analyzed on the ratio level of measurement because they have a true zero point and allow for meaningful ratios to be calculated. This means that we can perform operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division on pulse rate data. In contrast, the other options (A: eye color, C: ethnicity, D: gender) are categorical data that do not have a true zero point and therefore cannot be analyzed on the ratio level. Eye color, ethnicity, and gender are all examples of nominal data which only allow for qualitative classification and do not have a numerical value that can be used in mathematical operations.

Question 4 of 5

A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. Which adverse effect is associated with long-term use of inhaled corticosteroids?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Osteoporosis. Long-term use of inhaled corticosteroids can lead to decreased bone density and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Corticosteroids can interfere with calcium absorption and bone formation, resulting in bone weakening. Oral thrush (Choice A) is a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids, but it is not associated with long-term use. Hypertension (Choice B) and hyperglycemia (Choice C) are more commonly seen with systemic corticosteroid use rather than inhaled corticosteroids.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with petechiae, ecchymoses, and gingival bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, and normal PT and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acquired von Willebrand syndrome. This condition is characterized by a defect in von Willebrand factor function, leading to prolonged bleeding time and mucocutaneous bleeding. Normal platelet count rules out Glanzmann thrombasthenia and Bernard-Soulier syndrome which are platelet disorders. Normal PT and aPTT rule out Hemophilia A, a coagulation factor deficiency. Acquired von Willebrand syndrome is the most likely cause based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings.

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