OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antitoxic passive immunity. Antibotulinic serum contains pre-formed antibodies against the botulinum toxin, providing immediate protection to the patient. This is passive immunity as the patient does not produce their antibodies but receives them externally. Choice B is incorrect as botulism is not an infection, so the patient does not develop infection immunity. Choice C is incorrect because active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies after exposure to an antigen, which is not the case here. Choice D is incorrect as antimicrobic immunity relates to protection against microbes, not toxins like in botulism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The polysaccharide capsule. The capsule of Neisseria meningitidis plays a crucial role in its virulence by preventing phagocytosis, allowing the bacteria to evade the host's immune system. This leads to increased survival and colonization in the host. Choice B: The beta lactamase is incorrect because it is an enzyme that breaks down beta-lactam antibiotics and does not directly contribute to the virulence of Neisseria meningitidis. Choice C: The erythrogenic toxin is incorrect as this toxin is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes, not Neisseria meningitidis. Choice D: None of the above is incorrect as the polysaccharide capsule is indeed a key virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: vectors. Vectors are animals that transmit infectious diseases from one host to another, typically through biting or contact. They do not cause the disease themselves but serve as intermediaries. Pathogens (B) are the microorganisms that cause diseases. Carriers (C) are individuals who harbor a pathogen without showing symptoms. Parasites (D) are organisms that live on or inside another organism and may or may not transmit diseases. Therefore, the term "vectors" specifically refers to animals that transmit infectious diseases, making it the correct choice in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This is because Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci in chains bacterium that is catalase-negative, making it the most likely causative agent in this scenario. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common pathogen causing bacterial endocarditis. Summary of other choices: B: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, so it is unlikely in this case. C: Enterococcus faecalis is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium, but it is catalase-negative, which is not consistent with the given information. D: Micrococcus luteus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, making it an unlikely causative agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norwalk Virus. The Norwalk Virus belongs to the family Caliciviridae because it has characteristic features such as a nonenveloped, single-stranded RNA genome. The other options, Yellow fever virus, Rubella virus, and CMV, belong to different virus families and have distinct characteristics that differentiate them from Caliciviridae. Yellow fever virus is a Flavivirus, Rubella virus belongs to Togaviridae, and CMV is a member of the Herpesviridae family. Therefore, based on the genomic and structural characteristics of the Norwalk Virus, it is the correct choice for belonging to the Caliciviridae family.