ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to a client taking ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection is to avoid caffeine. Ciprofloxacin can interact with caffeine, potentially leading to increased side effects or reduced effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course, even if the client starts feeling better. Choice B is incorrect as ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products or antacids as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for codeine for cough suppression. What is the priority instruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to 'Move slowly when standing up.' Codeine can cause orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, leading to dizziness or fainting. By advising the client to move slowly when standing up, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries due to sudden drops in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are important instructions as well but not the priority when considering the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with codeine.
Question 4 of 5
What are the priority nursing assessments for a patient who has just undergone major surgery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of infection. After major surgery, one of the priority nursing assessments is to watch for signs of infection, such as increased temperature, redness, swelling, or drainage at the surgical site. While providing analgesia is important for pain management, monitoring for infection takes precedence as it can lead to severe complications if not detected early. Assessing the surgical site for bleeding is crucial but is usually more relevant immediately after surgery. Monitoring the patient's vital signs is essential, but the specific focus on infection assessment is crucial in the immediate postoperative period.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia who has a new prescription for antibiotics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with pneumonia who has a new prescription for antibiotics is to obtain a sputum culture. This is important to identify the specific bacteria causing the pneumonia before administering antibiotics. Administering the antibiotic immediately (Choice A) may not be appropriate without knowing the specific pathogen. Notifying the provider of the prescription (Choice C) is important but not the first action to be taken. Checking the client's allergy history (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority in this situation.
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