ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infection prevention. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because avoiding cleaning the cat's litter box during pregnancy reduces the risk of toxoplasmosis, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Choice A is incorrect because visiting someone with chickenpox should be avoided as it is highly contagious. Choice C is incorrect as handwashing after gardening should involve soap and water, not just hot water, for effective infection prevention. Choice D is incorrect because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections.
Question 2 of 5
A client with multiple sclerosis and dysphagia requires care. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For clients with dysphagia, especially those with multiple sclerosis, thin liquids can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids are recommended to reduce the risk of aspiration and help with swallowing difficulties. Positioning the client supine with the head of the bed flat can further increase the risk of aspiration. Having the client tuck their chin while swallowing is a strategy used for some types of dysphagia but not specifically for multiple sclerosis-related dysphagia. Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth does not address the swallowing difficulties associated with dysphagia.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by assessing which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Client-reported improvement in anxiety is an indication of effective treatment for pulmonary embolism. Choice A is incorrect as increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate complications or lack of improvement. Choice C is incorrect as diminished breath sounds auscultated unilaterally may suggest a localized lung issue and not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG results provided do not specifically indicate the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client prescribed with lisinopril is that they should avoid using salt substitutes while taking this medication. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Therefore, using salt substitutes that contain potassium can worsen this condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lisinopril is not typically associated with causing a dry cough or a slow heart rate, and increasing potassium intake can be harmful in the presence of lisinopril-induced hyperkalemia.
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