foundation of nursing questions and answers

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because instilling the medication in the conjunctival sac allows for direct absorption into the eye tissues. This method ensures that the medication reaches the target area for treating glaucoma effectively. Maintaining a supine position (choice B) or keeping the eyes closed (choice C) after administration does not enhance absorption and may lead to wasted medication. Applying the medication to the sclera (choice D) is incorrect as it does not target the specific area needed for treating glaucoma.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advise the patient that this is an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. This is correct because Gardnerella vaginalis is a bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis, which is an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. By advising the patient of this, the nurse practitioner can provide education on the condition and treatment options. B: Discussing the effect of this diagnosis on the patient's fertility is incorrect as Gardnerella vaginalis is not typically associated with fertility issues. C: Documenting the vaginal discharge as normal is incorrect as Gardnerella vaginalis is indicative of an abnormal vaginal flora imbalance. D: Administering acyclovir as ordered is incorrect as acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop taking aspirin. Aspirin is a blood thinner that can increase the risk of bleeding during and after surgery. By stopping aspirin before surgery, the woman's blood clotting ability will improve, reducing the risk of hemorrhage. A: Limiting intake of green leafy vegetables is not directly related to preventing hemorrhage in the postoperative period. B: Increasing water intake is important for overall health, but it does not specifically address the risk of hemorrhage related to aspirin use. D: Having nothing by mouth for 6 hours before surgery is important for preventing aspiration during anesthesia, but it does not directly address the risk of hemorrhage related to aspirin use.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - bleeding at IV insertion site. This finding could indicate a major complication following an abruption placenta, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) or hypovolemic shock. Bleeding at the IV site suggests a systemic issue affecting the patient's coagulation status. Choices A, B, and D are not directly indicative of a major complication following an abruption placenta. Urine output, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically point to a major complication in this context.