ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication.' This instruction is crucial when taking alendronate as it reduces the risk of esophagitis by preventing the medication from irritating the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime, to enhance absorption. Choice B is incorrect as alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably in the morning, with a full glass of water. Choice D is incorrect as there are no specific restrictions on taking alendronate with calcium-rich foods.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is crucial in managing patients with suspected DVT as it helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of complications like pulmonary embolism. Choice B, applying compression stockings, is more focused on preventing DVT in high-risk patients rather than managing an established case. Encouraging ambulation, choice C, is beneficial in the prevention of DVT but is not the primary management for suspected cases. Monitoring oxygen saturation, choice D, is important in overall patient care but is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial nursing action for a patient presenting with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of further clot formation in patients experiencing chest pain, as it has antiplatelet effects. Repositioning the patient, providing pain relief, or preparing for surgery are not the first-line interventions for chest pain. Repositioning the patient may be necessary to ensure comfort and safety, pain relief can be provided after further assessment and diagnostic tests, and preparing for surgery would only be considered after a thorough evaluation and confirmation of the need for surgical intervention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.