ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who has paraplegia and has an area of nonblanchable erythema over the ischium. Which intervention should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with nonblanchable erythema over the ischium is to teach the client to shift his weight every 15 minutes while sitting. This action helps relieve pressure on the affected area and prevents further skin breakdown. Placing the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion (Choice A) may not address the need for frequent weight shifts. Turning and repositioning the client every 3 hours (Choice C) is important for overall skin health but may not provide adequate relief for the specific area of nonblanchable erythema. Assessing pressure points every 24 hours (Choice D) is not frequent enough to prevent worsening of the skin condition in this case.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is below the normal range for a newborn and indicates hypoglycemia, which can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Therefore, this finding should be reported to the provider immediately. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 140/min, a bulging anterior fontanel, and a respiratory rate of 50/min are all common findings in a newborn and do not raise immediate concerns.
Question 4 of 5
A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
Question 5 of 5
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Telling the client that their delusions are not real is the most appropriate action as it helps ground them in reality without reinforcing the delusion. Encouraging the client to discuss the delusions (choice A) may further validate or intensify the delusions. Avoiding discussing the delusions (choice C) may lead to the client feeling isolated and unheard. Challenging the client's delusions directly (choice D) can escalate the situation and cause distress to the client.
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