ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, which can be a side effect of methotrexate and should be reported. Elevated white blood cell count (choice A), platelet count (choice B), or normal hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching about immunizations to a client who is pregnant. The nurse should inform the client that she can receive which of the following immunizations during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine. The Tdap vaccine can be safely administered during pregnancy to protect both the mother and the newborn against whooping cough. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Varicella vaccine, Inactivated polio vaccine, and Inactivated influenza vaccine are generally not recommended during pregnancy due to safety concerns.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.
Question 4 of 5
A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.
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