ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which prescription should the nurse identify as complete?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A complete prescription should include the medication name (Furosemide), dosage (20 mg), and administration schedule (BID - twice daily). Choice B is missing the dosage of Aspirin, choice C lacks the dosage information for Nitroglycerin, and choice D does not specify the administration schedule for Metoprolol.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.
Question 3 of 5
A client with schizophrenia is pacing the hall and is agitated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hall and agitated is to walk with the client at a gradually slower pace. This approach can help reduce the client's agitation and prevent the situation from escalating. Choice A is incorrect because directly asking about harm may increase the client's anxiety. Choice B is inappropriate as it may worsen the client's agitation. Choice C is not recommended as the client may benefit from the nurse's presence and support during this time of distress.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4�C (99.3�F), is within normal limits.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9�C (100.2�F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.
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