ATI Exit Exam 2023

Questions 83

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, straining, and subsequent bleeding, which is crucial for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia management.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.

Question 4 of 5

A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Telling the client that their delusions are not real is the most appropriate action as it helps ground them in reality without reinforcing the delusion. Encouraging the client to discuss the delusions (choice A) may further validate or intensify the delusions. Avoiding discussing the delusions (choice C) may lead to the client feeling isolated and unheard. Challenging the client's delusions directly (choice D) can escalate the situation and cause distress to the client.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who has paraplegia and has an area of nonblanchable erythema over the ischium. Which intervention should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with nonblanchable erythema over the ischium is to teach the client to shift his weight every 15 minutes while sitting. This action helps relieve pressure on the affected area and prevents further skin breakdown. Placing the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion (Choice A) may not address the need for frequent weight shifts. Turning and repositioning the client every 3 hours (Choice C) is important for overall skin health but may not provide adequate relief for the specific area of nonblanchable erythema. Assessing pressure points every 24 hours (Choice D) is not frequent enough to prevent worsening of the skin condition in this case.

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