ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

Questions 73

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is planning care for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the transmission of the disease?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Place the client in airborne isolation.' Tuberculosis is an airborne disease transmitted through droplet nuclei. Placing the client in airborne isolation helps prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A, placing the client in droplet isolation, is incorrect because tuberculosis is not transmitted through large droplets. Choice C, wearing a surgical mask when providing care to the client, is not sufficient as airborne precautions are necessary. Choice D, keeping the client's door closed at all times, does not directly address the prevention of disease transmission in this case.

Question 2 of 5

A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Heart rate of 88/min.' A heart rate of 88/min in a postoperative client can be an early sign of bleeding or other complications. It is essential to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate concern. A blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg is normal, urinary output of 30 mL/hr may be adequate depending on the client's fluid status, and a hematocrit of 42% is within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting.

Question 4 of 5

A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.

Question 5 of 5

If a nurse administers an incorrect dose of medication, which fact related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the time the medication was given. This is essential for understanding the sequence of events surrounding the medication error. While documenting the client's response to the medication (Choice B) is important for assessing any effects, the immediate concern should be to establish a clear timeline by documenting the time of administration. Recording the dose administered (Choice C) is also important, but in the context of understanding the incident, the time factor takes precedence. The reason for the error (Choice D) should be included in the incident report but may not be the first priority when documenting in the client's medical record.

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