ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is conducting a discharge planning assessment for a patient preparing to transition home. What action by the nurse demonstrates continuity of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because communicating with the patient's primary care provider and community resources demonstrates continuity of care. This action ensures a seamless transition from the hospital to home by keeping all involved parties informed and involved in the patient's care. Option A (written discharge instructions only) may provide information but lacks coordination with other healthcare providers. Option B (discharging without follow-up care coordination) can lead to gaps in care. Option D (disregarding patient concerns) goes against patient-centered care and can disrupt the continuity of care.
Question 2 of 5
To promote drainage and reduce pressure from fluid, Nurse Selma nursing intervention is to have the child assume any of the following positions, EXCEPT _____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lie on the affected area. This position would hinder drainage and increase pressure on the affected area. A: Tilt head to the side if sitting up, is correct as it promotes drainage. C: Putting pillows behind the head can also aid drainage. D: Lying on the non-affected ear can help reduce pressure on the affected side.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with severe sore throat, fever, and enlarged tonsils with exudate. Rapid antigen testing confirms group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS) infection. Which of the following medications is the first-line treatment for this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis due to its effectiveness against Streptococcus bacteria. It is a penicillin-class antibiotic recommended by guidelines. Azithromycin is an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin. Cephalexin is not the first-line choice for GAS. Clindamycin is reserved for patients allergic to both penicillin and macrolides.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with ecchymoses, mucosal bleeding, and altered mental status. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged PT and aPTT, low fibrinogen levels, and elevated D-dimer. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC, there is widespread activation of coagulation leading to consumption of clotting factors, resulting in prolonged PT and aPTT, low fibrinogen levels, and elevated D-dimer. This pattern matches the laboratory findings in the patient. In liver cirrhosis (choice A), there is a decrease in clotting factors synthesis, leading to prolonged PT but not aPTT. Hemophilia A (choice C) is a genetic disorder that affects specific clotting factors, typically leading to prolonged aPTT but not PT. Vitamin K deficiency (choice D) impairs the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to prolonged PT but not aPTT and low levels of factors II, VII, IX, and X.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. SSRI medications can lead to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), causing hyponatremia. This occurs due to increased levels of serotonin affecting the hypothalamus, leading to excessive ADH release. Hyponatremia can result in neurological symptoms and must be closely monitored. A: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with SSRIs. D: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs; they may actually lower blood pressure.
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