foundation of nursing questions

Questions 101

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

foundation of nursing questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Permanent vascular damage. Priapism is a prolonged erection that can lead to ischemia and damage to the penile tissue due to impaired blood flow, potentially resulting in permanent vascular damage. Urinary tract infection (A) is unrelated to priapism. Chronic pain (B) may occur but is not the primary concern. Future erectile dysfunction (D) can result from priapism but is not as immediate or severe as permanent vascular damage. Therefore, C is the most critical consequence to address in priapism.

Question 2 of 5

A 42-year-old man has come to the clinic for an annual physical. The nurse notes in the patients history that his father was treated for breast cancer. What should the nurse provide to the patient before he leaves the clinic?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A referral for a mammogram. Given the family history of breast cancer in the patient's father, the nurse should recommend a mammogram as a preventive measure due to increased risk. Mammograms are effective in detecting breast cancer early, especially in individuals with a family history. This can help in early diagnosis and timely intervention if needed. B: Instructions about breast self-examination (BSE) can be helpful, but in this case, a mammogram is a more definitive screening tool for high-risk individuals. C: A referral to a surgeon is not necessary at this point as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms of breast cancer. D: Referral to a support group may be beneficial for emotional support, but the priority should be on proactive screening measures like a mammogram.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is assessing a 28-year-old man with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the patient, which of the following observations takes immediate priority?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachypnea and restlessness. This observation takes immediate priority as it indicates potential respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia in HIV patients. Tachypnea can be a sign of hypoxia, while restlessness may indicate increased work of breathing. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Choice A: Oral temperature of 100F is not an immediate priority as it is within normal range and may not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Choice C: Frequent loose stools may suggest gastrointestinal issues but are not as urgent as respiratory distress in this scenario. Choice D: Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday, while relevant in monitoring the patient's condition, does not require immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress.

Question 4 of 5

An older-adult patient is wearing a hearing aid. Which technique should the nurse use to facilitate communication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a dyspneic patient with a tracheostomy may have difficulty speaking due to impaired airflow and mobility of the tongue. In this case, using alternative communication methods such as writing or using communication boards would be more effective. Choice A is incorrect because being blind does not directly impact communication in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as hunger, alertness, and self-esteem do not relate to the communication challenges presented. Choice C is incorrect as depression, while important to consider, is not the primary factor impacting communication in this case.

Question 5 of 5

When planning discharge teaching with a patient who has undergone a total mastectomy with axillary dissection, the nurse knows to instruct the patient that she should report what sign or symptom to the physician immediately?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sudden cessation of output from the drainage device. This is crucial because it can indicate a potential complication like a blocked drain or infection, requiring immediate medical attention to prevent further issues. Other choices like fatigue (A) are common after surgery but not urgent. Temperature elevation (B) may indicate infection but is not as critical as sudden cessation of drainage. Gradual decline in output (D) is expected as the drainage decreases over time, so it doesn't require immediate reporting.

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