ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

Questions 71

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine output of 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of dehydration or kidney impairment postoperatively. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and D are within normal parameters for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not raise immediate concerns. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing is an expected finding in the early postoperative period, a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is also within normal limits.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.

Question 3 of 5

While caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours is essential when managing a client on TPN to monitor for hyperglycemia, a common complication. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not a priority in this scenario. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice B) is not indicated as it is unrelated to managing TPN. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water (Choice D) is necessary, but it should be done with 0.9% sodium chloride, not water.

Question 4 of 5

How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient on furosemide for fluid balance?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring a patient's daily weight is crucial when assessing fluid balance in individuals prescribed furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt. Changes in weight can reflect fluid shifts, making daily weight monitoring a reliable indicator of fluid status. While checking for edema and monitoring input and output are essential aspects of fluid balance assessment, they may not provide as immediate and quantifiable information as daily weight measurements. Monitoring blood pressure is important in patients on furosemide due to its potential to affect blood pressure levels, but it is not as directly indicative of fluid balance as daily weight monitoring.

Question 5 of 5

What is the best way to manage a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is crucial in managing patients with suspected DVT as it helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of complications like pulmonary embolism. Choice B, applying compression stockings, is more focused on preventing DVT in high-risk patients rather than managing an established case. Encouraging ambulation, choice C, is beneficial in the prevention of DVT but is not the primary management for suspected cases. Monitoring oxygen saturation, choice D, is important in overall patient care but is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.

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