ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.
Question 2 of 5
A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating snacks rich in carbohydrates is essential to manage hypoglycemia by raising blood sugar levels. Option A is incorrect as monitoring blood sugar once a week is not frequent enough for effective diabetes management. Option B is incorrect because exercising when blood sugar is low can worsen hypoglycemia. Option D is incorrect as it focuses on preventing high blood sugar levels, not managing low blood sugar.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing fluid overload in clients with heart failure by increasing urine output. A decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively removing excess fluid from the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate an improvement in the client's condition. Increased shortness of breath, increased jugular venous distention, and increased heart rate are all signs of worsening heart failure and would not be expected findings when furosemide is effective.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.
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