RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting. Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Diarrhea (Choice A) is a more common side effect of digoxin but not typically associated with toxicity. Ringing in the ears (Choice C) is a potential sign of toxicity; however, vomiting is a more immediate concern. Dizziness (Choice D) can occur with digoxin use but is not a specific indicator of toxicity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling of the eyelids is a side effect of sumatriptan tablets that requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Chewing the tablet well before swallowing is not necessary for sumatriptan tablets. Repeating the dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache is incorrect as this medication should not be repeated within 24 hours. Taking sumatriptan daily for headache prevention is also incorrect as it is used for acute treatment, not prevention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Excessive focus on minor symptoms without medical evidence of illness." Illness Anxiety Disorder, formerly known as hypochondriasis, is characterized by a preoccupation with having a serious illness despite no medical evidence to support the presence of an illness. Individuals with this disorder often interpret normal bodily sensations as signs of severe illness. Choice B is incorrect because while individuals with Illness Anxiety Disorder may seek reassurance from healthcare professionals, the excessive focus on minor symptoms is the key characteristic. Choice C is incorrect as compulsive behaviors to avoid physical illness are more characteristic of illnesses like Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. Choice D is incorrect as the development of avoidance behaviors to reduce anxiety is more commonly seen in conditions like specific phobias or social anxiety disorder.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic effective in treating anthrax exposure. Fluconazole (Choice A) is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, not anthrax. Tobramycin (Choice B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections but is not the first line of treatment for anthrax. Vancomycin (Choice D) is also an antibiotic, but it is not the preferred choice for treating anthrax.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure include pulmonary symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea. However, left-sided heart failure can also manifest as jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex due to the backflow of blood into the pulmonary circulation. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by systemic symptoms like hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema. Choice B is incorrect as it presents manifestations of right-sided heart failure. Choice C includes symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Choice D describes pulmonary congestion, which is more specific to left-sided heart failure, but it does not encompass the full range of clinical manifestations for left-sided heart failure.