ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional is preparing education material for a client. Which of the following techniques should the professional use in creating material?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Use a 7th-grade reading level.' This ensures that the material is accessible to most clients by keeping the language simple and easy to understand. Emphasizing important information using bold lettering (Choice A) can be helpful but may not enhance overall readability. Avoiding cartoons (Choice C) is not a universal rule and can sometimes make the material more engaging. Using words with three or four syllables (Choice D) can make the material difficult to comprehend for many clients.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr. This slow infusion rate is crucial to prevent the development of hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Option A is incorrect because giving the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes can lead to adverse effects. Option B is incorrect as potassium chloride does not necessarily need to be diluted before administration in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as administering the medication undiluted can also increase the risk of hyperkalemia.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.
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