Nursing Process Final Exam Questions

Correct Answer:

Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: 1. Asking about chief concerns helps to focus the interview on the patient's needs. 2. It demonstrates active listening and empathy. 3. Allows the nurse to prioritize issues and provide appropriate care. 4. Introductions are already done, and ending the interview abruptly or mentioning medication timing is not patient-centered.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Hyponatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by low sodium levels in the blood. Step 2: Restricting fluid intake helps prevent further dilution of sodium in the blood, aiding in correcting hyponatremia. Step 3: Administering sodium can lead to rapid correction, risking osmotic demyelination syndrome. Step 4: Choice C is correct as it aligns with the goal of managing hyponatremia by preventing fluid overload symptoms. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of correcting low sodium levels in hyponatremia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take piroxicam with food or oral antacid. This instruction helps to reduce GI irritation by providing a protective barrier for the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effect on prostaglandin synthesis. Taking it with food or an antacid can help minimize this side effect. Choice A (Space the administration every 4 hours) does not address the issue of GI irritation and is not a recommended strategy for preventing this side effect. Choice B (Use the drug for a short time only) is not a direct intervention to prevent GI upset and does not provide guidance on how to manage the side effect when taking the medication. Choice D (Decrease the piroxicam dosage) may not be necessary if the client can manage the side effects with the simple intervention of taking it with food or an antacid.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume. Peritonitis causes inflammation of the peritoneum, leading to fluid shifting into the peritoneal cavity, causing hypovolemia. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of decreased intravascular volume. Rigid abdominal muscles and rebound tenderness indicate peritoneal irritation. Choice B is incorrect because elevated ammonia levels are not associated with the client's symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis does not explain the client's hypotension and tachycardia. Choice D is incorrect because malabsorption does not align with the client's acute presentation of severe abdominal pain and peritonitis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Creamy white patches. These patches are indicative of oral thrush, a common fungal infection seen in individuals with weakened immune systems like those with AIDS. This infection is caused by Candida albicans. It presents as white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, or roof of the mouth. Halitosis (A) is bad breath, not specific to AIDS. Carious teeth (C) refers to cavities, not directly related to AIDS. Swollen lips (D) can be a symptom of various oral conditions, but not specific to AIDS. In summary, creamy white patches are a characteristic oral problem associated with AIDS due to opportunistic infections like oral thrush.