ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client pulseless. The client's living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. In the absence of a written DNR order by the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally obligated to initiate CPR to attempt to save the client's life. Administering emergency medications without CPR (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for life-saving measures. Calling the provider for a DNR order (Choice C) may cause a delay in providing necessary resuscitative measures. Respecting the client's wishes and not attempting CPR (Choice D) goes against the nurse's duty to provide immediate life-saving interventions in the absence of a DNR order.
Question 2 of 5
A client with HIV-1 starting therapy with ritonavir and zidovudine asks why both medications are necessary. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because taking two medications together helps prevent the development of drug resistance in HIV treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the primary goal of combination therapy is not necessarily a faster recovery. Choice B is incorrect as the main purpose of combining medications in HIV treatment is to prevent resistance rather than improving the immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while it is true that the medications may target different parts of the virus, the main reason for using both together is to prevent resistance.
Question 3 of 5
A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. Which of the following interventions by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because teaching students about healthy food choices is a primary prevention strategy that aims to prevent future health issues by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice A, designing interventions for an individual education plan (IEP), is more related to addressing specific educational needs rather than preventing health issues. Choice C, performing first aid for minor injuries, is a form of secondary prevention aimed at reducing the impact of existing health problems. Choice D, performing scoliosis screenings for students, falls under secondary prevention by detecting health issues early rather than preventing them.
Question 4 of 5
A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is essential to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns. This precaution helps prevent aspiration, as the gag reflex protects the airway from foreign material. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours (Choice A) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of aspiration. Suctioning the client's oropharynx frequently (Choice C) can cause trauma and is not indicated unless there is a specific medical reason for it. Having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours (Choice D) is not necessary after a flexible bronchoscopy.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin 650mg PO every 12 hr. The amount available is aspirin 325mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 2 tablets. Each tablet of aspirin is 325mg. To achieve the required dose of 650mg, the nurse should administer 2 tablets. Choice A (1 tablet) is incorrect because it would only provide 325mg, which is half the required dose. Choices C (3 tablets) and D (4 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the required dose.
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