Midwifery Exam Questions

Questions 64

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A neonate of a smear-negative mother just before birth receives BCG as usual.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because BCG vaccination is recommended for newborns regardless of maternal smear status to prevent tuberculosis. The neonate is at risk of TB exposure postnatally and needs protection. Maternal smear status does not affect the indication for BCG in the newborn. Choice B is incorrect because withholding BCG in this case would leave the neonate vulnerable to TB. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any information.

Question 2 of 5

Secondary postpartum haemorrhage mostly occurs between the 8th-14th day postpartumly and can extend up to the first 46 days following delivery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because secondary postpartum hemorrhage typically occurs between the 8th-14th day postpartum and can extend up to 6 weeks after delivery. This timeframe aligns with the physiological changes and healing process after childbirth. Choice B is incorrect because it contradicts the established timeframe for secondary postpartum hemorrhage. Choice C is incorrect as secondary postpartum hemorrhage is not rare but rather a recognized complication that can occur after childbirth. Choice D is incorrect as secondary postpartum hemorrhage does not happen sporadically, but rather follows a defined timeframe based on postpartum physiological changes.

Question 3 of 5

In laryngeal stridor, the noise is more marked during

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspiration. Laryngeal stridor is caused by narrowed or obstructed airway, resulting in noisy breathing. During inspiration, the air is drawn through the narrowed larynx, causing the stridor sound. During expiration, the air is leaving the body, so the noise may not be as prominent. Choices C and D, feeding and play, are unrelated to the respiratory process and do not affect the presence of laryngeal stridor.

Question 4 of 5

Aims of exchange transfusion procedure includes:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the main aims of an exchange transfusion procedure are to control haemolysis (process of breaking down red blood cells) and restore hemoglobin levels. This procedure involves removing the baby's blood and replacing it with donor blood to prevent complications from severe jaundice or other conditions. Choice A is incorrect because exchange transfusion does not necessarily cure haemolysis, but it helps control it. Choice B is incorrect as the procedure focuses on managing specific issues rather than removing all toxic materials. Choice C is incorrect because it does not directly address the primary goals of an exchange transfusion.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake helps decrease ammonia production. Excessive ammonia leads to neurological symptoms. Lactulose (choice A) is correct for hepatic encephalopathy as it helps eliminate ammonia through the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic and not indicated for hepatic encephalopathy. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sleep aid and not relevant to managing ammonia accumulation. In summary, choice C is correct because it directly targets the underlying issue of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy, while the other choices do not address this specific concern.

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