Microbiology Chapter 12 Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antitoxic serum. In the neutralization reaction to identify botulinum toxin, antitoxic serum is used to neutralize the toxin in white mice. Antitoxic serum contains antibodies that specifically target and neutralize the botulinum toxin. Normal serum (B) does not contain the necessary antibodies to neutralize the toxin. Antibacterial serum (C) is not effective against toxins like botulinum. Diagnosticum (D) is a general term and does not specifically refer to the biological product required for this reaction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Leptospirosis. The symptoms described align with the classic presentation of Leptospirosis, such as fever, muscle pain, headache, jaundice, and hemorrhages. The initial symptoms of chills, high fever, and muscle pain followed by jaundice and hemorrhages are characteristic of Leptospirosis. The presence of dark urine and low diuresis also point towards kidney involvement, which is common in Leptospirosis due to renal failure. Additionally, the patient's history of potential exposure to contaminated water or soil supports the diagnosis, as Leptospirosis is commonly transmitted through contact with infected animal urine. Summary of other choices: - Typhoid fever typically presents with sustained fever, abdominal pain, and constipation, not matching the symptoms described. - Virus A hepatitis usually presents with jaundice, but other symptoms such as muscle pain and hemorrhages are not typical. - Sepsis is a systemic response

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive diplococci suggest a pneumococcal infection. Step 2: Catalase-negative indicates Streptococcus. Step 3: Alpha-hemolysis matches S. pneumoniae's characteristics. Therefore, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is Gram-negative, and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is not diplococci or alpha-hemolytic.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Shigella sonnei escapes phagocytic clearance by lysing the phagosome and replicating in the cytoplasm. This allows the bacterium to avoid being destroyed by the acidic environment and enzymes in the phagolysosome. Choice B is incorrect as Shigella does not have a capsule. Choice C is incorrect because Shigella actually induces phagosome-lysosome fusion to facilitate its escape. Choice D is incorrect as protein A is a component of Staphylococcus aureus, not Shigella sonnei.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Cytomegalovirus infections are caused by human herpesvirus 5, also known as Human Herpesvirus 5 (HHV-5) or Cytomegalovirus (CMV). This virus belongs to the Herpesviridae family, genus Betaherpesvirinae. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not correspond to the specific virus responsible for causing Cytomegalovirus infections.