ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

Questions 121

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medical history and notes that the client has a prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision, along with nausea, vomiting, and confusion, are common manifestations of Digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances are important to recognize as they can indicate the need for immediate medical attention and potential adjustment of Digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Bradycardia is a common therapeutic effect of Digoxin rather than a sign of toxicity. Ringing in the ears, or tinnitus, is also a potential side effect of Digoxin but is less specific to toxicity compared to yellow-tinged vision.

Question 2 of 5

A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include when providing discharge instructions for a client with a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to a risk of overdose. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be applied to a clean, non-hairy area. Choice B is incorrect as the Fentanyl patch is usually changed every 72 hours, not every 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should never be cut to adjust the dosage.

Question 4 of 5

A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Clopidogrel is to avoid taking aspirin while on this medication. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin and other NSAIDs can potentiate the risk of bleeding, so they should be avoided while taking Clopidogrel to prevent adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Clopidogrel does not need to be taken with food, there is no specific dietary restriction related to potassium, and the timing of administration (bedtime) is not a critical instruction for this medication.

Question 5 of 5

A client has a prescription for long-term use of oral prednisone for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Oral prednisone can lead to weight gain and fluid retention due to its sodium and water retention effects. Monitoring weight changes is crucial to identify and manage this adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because oral prednisone is not typically associated with nervousness, bradycardia, or constipation as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring weight gain in clients prescribed long-term oral prednisone therapy.

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