ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been using beclomethasone for 2 weeks to manage her asthma. What is the priority to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchospasms. Bronchospasms can indicate worsening asthma and are considered a severe side effect that requires immediate attention. While sore throat, cough, and chest tightness are also possible side effects of beclomethasone, bronchospasms are of higher concern due to their association with significant respiratory distress and potential exacerbation of asthma symptoms.
Question 2 of 5
A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with a provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin can worsen urinary retention, so the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice A) is a common antibiotic used to treat UTIs and does not require verification. Hyoscyamine (Choice B) is an anticholinergic medication used for bladder spasms and does not typically worsen UTI symptoms. Phenazopyridine (Choice D) is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by a UTI, which may not necessarily require verification in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action when administering enoxaparin is not to expel the air bubble in the prefilled syringe. Expelling the air bubble may lead to the loss of medication and result in an incomplete dose. Aspirating for a blood return (Choice A) is not necessary for subcutaneous injections like enoxaparin. Inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (Choice B) is not specific to administering enoxaparin. Administering the medication 2.54 cm (1 in) from the umbilicus (Choice C) is not a standard guideline for enoxaparin administration.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is a common manifestation of opioid withdrawal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors and increased blood pressure. During opioid withdrawal, individuals commonly experience symptoms such as tremors, increased blood pressure, and restlessness. Choice A, which suggests bradycardia and hypotension, is incorrect as opioid withdrawal often leads to tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and increased blood pressure. Choice C, severe muscle weakness and fatigue, is not a typical manifestation of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, severe hallucinations and delusions, is more characteristic of conditions like delirium tremens associated with alcohol withdrawal, rather than opioid withdrawal.
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