ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

Questions 121

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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client receiving an IV bolus of Morphine is the respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise early and intervene promptly. Assessing pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are also important but not the priority in this situation. Pain level can be assessed after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Blood pressure and level of consciousness should be monitored but do not take precedence over the respiratory rate when administering Morphine.

Question 2 of 5

A client with migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which finding in the client's history should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with first-degree heart block due to its negative inotropic and chronotropic effects. The nurse should report this finding to the provider to consider an alternative therapy to prevent potential worsening of cardiac conduction abnormalities. Choices A, B, and C are not directly contraindications to Propranolol therapy for migraine headaches and do not pose immediate risks that would require reporting to the provider.

Question 3 of 5

A client with early Parkinson's disease has been prescribed pramipexole. What adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations within 9 months of the initial dose, which may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Monitoring for hallucinations is crucial to ensure early detection and management to prevent any adverse outcomes. Choice B, increased salivation, is not a common adverse effect of pramipexole. Choice C, diarrhea, is not typically associated with pramipexole use. Choice D, discoloration of urine, is not a known adverse effect of pramipexole and is not typically a concern with this medication.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for leg cramps.' Leg cramps may indicate hypokalemia, an adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide, and should be reported to the provider. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturia. Choice B is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that helps lower blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide can be taken with or without food.

Question 5 of 5

A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.

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