ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

Questions 62

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.

Question 2 of 5

A client has a new prescription for Captopril to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid salt substitutes. Salt substitutes often contain potassium, and captopril can cause hyperkalemia. By avoiding salt substitutes, the client can prevent elevated potassium levels and associated complications.

Question 3 of 5

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.

Question 4 of 5

A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, it is essential to monitor their heart rate before each dose. Changes such as a heart rate below 60 bpm should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. This is crucial because Digoxin can affect heart rhythm, and monitoring the heart rate helps in identifying any potential issues early on.

Question 5 of 5

A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

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