Pathophysiology Practice Exam

Questions 38

ATI RN

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Pathophysiology Practice Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is being considered for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including venous thromboembolism. Patients with a history of venous thromboembolism are at higher risk, so discussing this potential risk is crucial. Choice A, increased bone density, is not a major risk of HRT. Choice C, reduced risk of breast cancer, is not a common discussion point regarding HRT risks. Choice D, improved mood and energy levels, is more related to the benefits of HRT rather than its risks.

Question 3 of 5

The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Botulism in infants is often linked to honey consumption. Asking the parents if they have ever given their child any honey or honey-containing products can provide crucial information for the differential diagnosis. This is important because infant botulism is commonly associated with the ingestion of honey contaminated with Clostridium botulinum spores. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant to botulism in infants as they do not directly relate to the typical causes of the condition. Family history of neuromuscular diseases (choice B) may be important for other conditions but not specifically for infant botulism. Direct exposure to chemical cleaning products (choice C) and the presence of mold in the home (choice D) are not typical risk factors for infant botulism.

Question 4 of 5

An immunology nurse is caring for a patient. While planning care, which principle will the nurse remember? The primary role of IgA1 is to prevent infections in the:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood. IgA1 is mainly found in the blood and plays a crucial role in preventing infections by neutralizing pathogens. While IgA1 can be present in other body areas, its primary function is associated with preventing infections in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as IgA1 is not primarily associated with the kidneys, lungs, or mucous membranes.

Question 5 of 5

Ivermectin (Stromectol) appears on a list of a patient's recent medications. The nurse who is reviewing the medications is justified in suspecting that the patient may have been receiving treatment for a parasitic infection with

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ivermectin (Stromectol) is commonly used to treat parasitic infections, particularly Strongyloides stercoralis. This parasitic infection is known to respond well to Ivermectin therapy. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis and is typically treated with antiprotozoal drugs like metronidazole, not Ivermectin. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite causing giardiasis, which is usually treated with medications like metronidazole or tinidazole, not Ivermectin. Plasmodium falciparum is a malaria-causing parasite and is not treated with Ivermectin but with antimalarial medications like chloroquine or artemisinin-based combination therapies.

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