ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.
Question 2 of 5
While caring for a client receiving an opioid analgesic for pain management, which assessment should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioids, the priority assessment is the respiratory rate since opioids can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring urinary output, blood pressure, and constipation are also important but not the priority in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression resulting from the fetal head being compressed during contractions. They are considered benign and do not indicate fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect because early decelerations are not associated with fetal hypoxia. Choice B, abruptio placentae, is incorrect as it is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Choice C, post maturity, is incorrect as it refers to a fetus that remains in the uterus past the due date.
Question 4 of 5
What is the most important assessment for a patient post-op to monitor for complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor vital signs. Post-operative patients need close monitoring of their vital signs to detect early signs of complications such as changes in blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, and respiratory rate. While monitoring the surgical site is also important for signs of infection, assessing vital signs takes precedence as it provides immediate information about the patient's overall condition. Checking blood glucose levels may be essential for specific patients but is not the primary assessment for monitoring post-op complications. Checking for abnormal breath sounds is important but falls secondary to monitoring vital signs as it indicates respiratory issues rather than providing a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition.
Question 5 of 5
A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement shows an understanding of advance directives because they allow individuals to specify their treatment preferences in advance, including the right to refuse treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate as individuals can update or change their advance directives at any time. Choice B is incorrect because while a doctor may discuss advance directives with the client, approval is not required for the directives to be valid. Choice C is also incorrect as a witness is typically required to verify the client's signature, not the other way around.
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