ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 13th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A Gram-positive cocci in chains was isolated from a patient with a throat infection. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in chains: S. pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci in chains. 2. Catalase-negative: S. pyogenes is catalase-negative. 3. Beta-hemolytic: S. pyogenes exhibits beta-hemolysis. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is alpha-hemolytic and optochin-sensitive. C: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative, but not typically beta-hemolytic. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive.
Question 2 of 5
In order to establish the possible contamination of a medication with fungi, a nutrient medium was inoculated, which resulted in growth of large cream-like colonies. What nutrient medium was used in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sabouraud. Sabouraud agar is specifically designed to promote the growth of fungi due to its low pH and high glucose content. The cream-like colonies indicate fungal growth, as fungi often appear as fluffy or powdery colonies on Sabouraud agar. Lowenstein-Jensen is used for mycobacteria, Roux for diphtheria, and Loeffler for Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Therefore, Sabouraud is the most suitable medium for detecting fungal contamination based on the characteristics of the colonies formed.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with fever, chill and cough. From his sputum the ovoid Gram-negative bipolar- stained bacilli with a delicate capsule were secured. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plague. The presence of ovoid Gram-negative bipolar-stained bacilli with a delicate capsule in the sputum is characteristic of Yersinia pestis, the causative agent of plague. Plague presents with symptoms like fever, chills, and cough. Plague is a zoonotic disease usually transmitted through fleas from rodents. The other choices (B: Tuberculosis, C: Leptospirosis, D: Brucellosis) can be ruled out based on the specific description of the bacteria in the sputum. Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is not Gram-negative. Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira, which are spirochetes and not ovoid bacilli. Brucellosis is caused by Brucella species, which are small, coccobacilli and not ovoid bacilli.
Question 4 of 5
What drug should be administered for individual prevention of malaria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin. Chingamin is a type of antimalarial drug that is commonly used for individual prevention of malaria. It works by targeting the malaria parasite in the body, preventing its growth and spread. Rifampicin (B), Ampicillin (C), and Gentamicin (D) are not effective for preventing malaria as they are antibiotics that target bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria. Therefore, Chingamin is the most appropriate choice for individual prevention of malaria due to its specific antimalarial properties.
Question 5 of 5
All of the following are symptoms of endocarditis except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: leg swelling. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves. Symptoms typically include fever, chills, weight loss, and muscle aches due to the body's immune response to the infection. Leg swelling is not a common symptom of endocarditis. It may occur in conditions like heart failure but is not directly associated with endocarditis. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because fever and chills, weight loss, and muscle aches are commonly seen in endocarditis due to the systemic inflammatory response to the infection.
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