Nursing Process NCLEX Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assessment and recognition of abnormal findings. This is crucial as trauma to the urinary tract can lead to various complications such as urinary retention, infection, or injury to surrounding structures. By assessing and recognizing abnormal findings, the nurse can promptly identify any issues and initiate appropriate interventions. Choice A (Assessment of sexual habits) may be important for assessing risk factors for urinary tract trauma, but it is not directly related to assessing the client's current condition post-accident. Choice C (Assessment of allergies to seafood) is irrelevant in this scenario as it does not impact the assessment of urinary tract trauma. Choice D (Assessment of insurance coverage) is not a priority when assessing a client's immediate health status post-accident.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct: 1. Blood pressure is vital in this scenario due to prednisone discontinuation. 2. Abruptly stopping prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. 3. Adrenal insufficiency can cause hypotension, a life-threatening condition. 4. Monitoring blood pressure can help detect and manage potential complications. Summary of other choices: A: Breath sounds � Important but not the priority in this specific situation. C: Capillary refill � Useful for assessing circulation but not urgent in this context. D: Butterfly rash � A characteristic of lupus, but not a critical concern in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: antidiuretic hormone (ADH). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH, which regulates water balance by reducing urine output. Without ADH, excessive urination and thirst occur. FSH, TSH, and LH are not related to water balance regulation. FSH and LH are involved in reproductive functions, while TSH regulates thyroid hormone production. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the importance of ADH in managing diabetes insipidus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Having intercourse with just the spouse means a monogamous relationship with a trusted partner, minimizing risk of exposure to HIV. 2. It eliminates the risk of contracting HIV from multiple sexual partners. 3. This choice adheres to safer sex practices by reducing the chances of exposure to HIV. 4. This choice also promotes trust and communication within the relationship, further reducing the risk of HIV transmission. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it promotes monogamy and reduces the risk of exposure to HIV. - Choices B, C, and D do not guarantee zero risk of HIV transmission as blood donations, HIV antibodies, and condom use can still pose risks if not used or implemented correctly.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because jaundice is a common manifestation of sickle cell anemia due to the breakdown of red blood cells. The nurse should inspect the skin and sclera for the characteristic yellow discoloration indicating jaundice. This assessment is specific to identifying jaundice, which is directly related to the disease process. Choice A is incorrect as it relates to assessing neurological function, not jaundice. Choice B is incorrect as joint swelling is not a typical sign of jaundice in sickle cell anemia. Choice D is incorrect as a urine specimen is not used to assess jaundice; skin and sclera inspection are more appropriate.