Midwifery Exam Practice Questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): A trial of scar is indicated when a woman has had no more than two previous caesarean sections. This is because the risk of uterine rupture increases with each subsequent caesarean section due to scar tissue weakening. Limiting the number of previous scars reduces this risk. Therefore, option C is correct. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Estimated fetal weight is not a determining factor for a trial of scar. B: Availability of a level one hospital nearby is important for emergency situations but not a criteria for trial of scar. D: Adequate pelvis with true conjugate 10.5cm is important for vaginal delivery but not a specific requirement for a trial of scar.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Fetal macrosomia, malpresentation, and pelvic abnormalities are all known causes of obstructed labor. Fetal macrosomia refers to a large baby, which can lead to difficulty in passing through the birth canal. Malpresentation occurs when the baby is not positioned optimally for delivery, such as breech or transverse positions. Pelvic abnormalities, such as a contracted pelvis, can impede the baby's passage during labor. Therefore, selecting option D is appropriate as it encompasses all the major causes of obstructed labor. Choices A, B, and C are not individually comprehensive enough to cover all potential causes of obstructed labor.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. The first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is often a fever due to the body's response to stress. This is because stress can trigger an inflammatory response, leading to an increase in body temperature. Epigastric pain (choice A) is more commonly associated with peptic ulcers. Change in mental status (choice B) is not a typical early symptom of physiologic stress ulcer. Hemorrhage (choice D) is a severe complication that can occur later in the course of the disease, but it is not typically the first clinical manifestation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Placental parasitation is associated with Malaria prenatally because the Plasmodium parasite can infect the placenta through the bloodstream, leading to severe complications for both the mother and the fetus. This infection can result in low birth weight, preterm birth, and even stillbirth. Candidiasis, Tuberculosis, and Multiple gestation are not directly associated with placental parasitation. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection, and Multiple gestation refers to carrying more than one fetus during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Malaria prenatally, due to the direct impact of Plasmodium parasite on the placenta and its implications on pregnancy outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Family history of colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Step 2: By discussing with his parents, Mr. Costigan can determine if there is a family history of colon cancer. Step 3: Knowing this information can help assess his own risk and guide appropriate screening and preventive measures. Step 4: The primary danger for Mr. Costigan lies in potential genetic predisposition rather than the presence of inflammatory polyps. Step 5: Therefore, discussing with family members about any history of colon cancer is crucial for his overall risk assessment and management. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as the frequency of colonoscopy should be individualized based on the patient's risk factors. - Choice C is incorrect as all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, especially inflammatory polyps. - Choice D is incorrect as consulting an oncologist at this stage is premature without first assessing family history.