Nursing Process Quizlet Questions

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. This statement indicates a need for additional instruction because questioning a partner about past sexual encounters may not be a reliable method to avoid STDs. Here's the rationale: 1. A: Correct - Acknowledges the reality that engaging in sexual activity carries risks, even with precautions. 2. B: Correct - Emphasizes that abstinence is the most effective way to prevent STD transmission. 3. C: Correct - Using a condom with spermicide can reduce the risk of STD transmission, although it's not foolproof. 4. D: Incorrect - Relying solely on partner questioning is not a comprehensive or foolproof method to prevent STDs. It overlooks the potential for misinformation or lack of disclosure from the partner.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Arcus senilis. This condition does not cause visual problems in the older adult. Arcus senilis is a grayish-white ring around the cornea, which does not affect vision. Glaucoma, macular degeneration, and cataracts are conditions that can lead to visual impairment in older adults. Glaucoma is characterized by increased pressure in the eye, which can damage the optic nerve and lead to vision loss. Macular degeneration affects the central part of the retina, leading to blurred or distorted vision. Cataracts cause clouding of the lens, resulting in decreased vision. Therefore, Arcus senilis is the correct choice as it does not cause visual problems compared to the other conditions listed.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it clearly states a measurable outcome by specifying that the client will be able to list five symptoms of infection. This outcome is specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART). Choice A lacks specificity and measurability. Choice B is vague and does not provide a quantifiable measure of success. Choice D does not specify who will be observing the symptoms or how they will be documented. Overall, choice C stands out as the most appropriate outcome as it is clear, achievable, and directly related to assessing the client's understanding of infection symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (3750ml) because the client will receive 1000ml D5W + 500ml normal saline + 1500ml D5NS + 50ml antibiotic every 8 hours x 3 times in 24 hours (50ml x 3 = 150ml). Adding these together gives a total of 1000ml + 500ml + 1500ml + 150ml = 3150ml. Therefore, the client's IV fluid intake for 24 hours will be 3150ml.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine osmolarity. In hyperglycemia, the body tries to eliminate excess glucose through increased urine output, causing a concentrated urine with high osmolarity. This indicates fluid deficit. Cool, clammy skin (A) may suggest poor perfusion but not fluid volume deficit. Distended neck veins (C) are more indicative of fluid overload. Serum sodium level (D) may be elevated in fluid deficit but does not directly assess volume status like urine osmolarity does.