Nursing Process 1 Test Questions

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with diabetes mellitus has a prescription for 5 U-100 regular insulin and 25 U of U-100 isophane insulin suspension (NPH) to be taken before breakfast. At about 4:30 p.m., the client experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. What is the most probable cause of these signs and symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. At 4:30 p.m., after taking the morning insulin, the client's blood sugar may have dropped too low, leading to symptoms like headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. Regular insulin and NPH insulin peak at different times, causing a potential mismatch in insulin action, leading to hypoglycemia. Hyperglycemia (A) would present with different symptoms like increased thirst and urination. Hyperuricemia (B) is an excess of uric acid in the blood and does not typically present with these symptoms. Hypochondria (D) is a psychological condition and not related to the client's physical symptoms.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the ff symptoms is associated with AIDS related distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormal sensations such as burning and numbness. In AIDS-related DSP, damage to nerves causes abnormal sensations like burning and numbness. This is due to the progressive nerve damage affecting sensory functions. Staggering gait and muscle incoordination (A) are more common in conditions affecting motor nerves. Delusional thinking (C) is not a symptom of DSP. Incontinence (D) is not typically associated with DSP but may happen in more advanced stages due to loss of sensation.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is discharging a client from the hospital. When should discharge planning be initiated?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Discharge planning should start at admission to ensure comprehensive preparation. 2. Early planning allows for assessment of needs and coordination of resources. 3. It promotes continuity of care and reduces risks of readmission. 4. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they miss the opportunity for proactive planning.

Question 4 of 5

A patient understands the common causes of urinary tract infection if he or she states the following, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because drinking lots of water at night actually helps prevent UTIs by flushing out bacteria from the urinary tract. Holding the urge to urinate (Choice A) can increase the risk of UTIs as bacteria can multiply in stagnant urine. Insertion of instruments and catheters (Choice B) can introduce bacteria, leading to infection. Unhygienic cleaning after defecation (Choice D) can also introduce bacteria to the urinary tract, causing UTIs. Therefore, Choice C is the exception as it does not contribute to the common causes of UTIs.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with a new diagnosis of lung cancer decides to have radiation therapy. Which of the ff. expectations of this treatment is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased comfort. Radiation therapy for lung cancer aims to alleviate symptoms, reduce pain, and improve quality of life. It is not typically used as a curative treatment like surgery or chemotherapy (A). It does not prevent the need for oxygen (B), as lung cancer can still affect lung function. While radiation therapy may help control the growth of cancer cells, it is not always effective in preventing cancer spread (D). Therefore, the most appropriate expectation of radiation therapy for lung cancer is increased comfort for the patient.

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