ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which intervention should the nurse implement to support the client's recovery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, encouraging the client to set realistic goals for daily activities can be beneficial. Setting achievable goals can provide structure, a sense of accomplishment, and help in breaking tasks into manageable steps, which can support the client's recovery process. Options A and B, while important in managing bipolar disorder, may not directly address the client's depressive symptoms during this episode. Option D, encouraging the client to express feelings of sadness, is not as effective as setting achievable goals in providing structure and a sense of accomplishment during a depressive episode.
Question 2 of 5
A client prescribed fluoxetine for depression is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine can cause drowsiness, affecting a person's ability to drive safely. It is essential to avoid driving until the client knows how the medication affects them to ensure safety. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine is usually taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine is recommended to be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, not specifically to avoid stomach upset. Choice D is incorrect because fluoxetine is typically prescribed for depression or other mood disorders on a daily basis, not as needed for anxiety.
Question 3 of 5
In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
Question 4 of 5
Which statement indicates an understanding of the DSM-5 diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the correct answer as the DSM-5 not only provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders but also includes information on cultural considerations. Understanding cultural factors is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate care, highlighting the comprehensive nature of the DSM-5 for healthcare providers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while the DSM-5 is indeed a tool for healthcare providers, it is also used in legal settings, and it focuses on diagnostic criteria and not just the prevalence of mental disorders.
Question 5 of 5
A client diagnosed with panic disorder is receiving discharge teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Avoiding caffeine and other stimulants is crucial for clients with panic disorder as these substances can exacerbate anxiety symptoms. Caffeine can trigger or worsen anxiety, leading to increased heart rate and restlessness. By eliminating stimulants, the client can better manage their anxiety levels and reduce the risk of panic attacks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking medication only when feeling anxious may lead to inconsistent treatment, using relaxation techniques alone may not be sufficient for managing panic disorder, and avoiding exercise can actually be counterproductive as regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and stress levels.
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