ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking an oral contraceptive misses one pill, the correct action is to take two pills as soon as they remember and then continue the regular schedule. Option A is the correct answer because doubling up the dose helps maintain the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Option B is incorrect because taking only one pill after missing one may decrease contraceptive effectiveness. Option C is wrong as skipping the missed pill can also reduce effectiveness. Option D is inaccurate because taking two pills immediately is not necessary; the patient should take the missed pill as soon as remembered and then resume the regular dosing schedule.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barr� syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barr� syndrome.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Progestins are prescribed for dysmenorrhea as they help reduce menstrual pain by inhibiting ovulation and decreasing the production of prostaglandins. Estrogen (Choice A) is not typically used alone in dysmenorrhea treatment as it can worsen symptoms. Naproxen (Choice C) and Ibuprofen (Choice D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) commonly used to relieve pain associated with dysmenorrhea, but they do not directly affect the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function like progestins do.