ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

Questions 41

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ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

Question 2 of 5

What potential risk should the nurse identify as being associated with infliximab (Remicade) in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for infection. Infliximab (Remicade) is a medication used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. One of the main risks associated with infliximab is an increased susceptibility to infections due to its immunosuppressive effects. This drug works by targeting specific proteins in the body's immune system, which can weaken the body's ability to fight off infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infliximab is not typically associated with decreased level of consciousness, nephrotoxicity, or hepatotoxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients on infliximab for signs of infection and educate them on the importance of infection prevention strategies.

Question 3 of 5

During surgery, the anesthesia personnel notice the client is having a steady rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide level. At this time, the nurse anesthetist begins to assess the client for malignant hyperthermia. The initial (priority) assessment for this disorder may include:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: monitoring for muscle rigidity. Muscle rigidity is a hallmark sign of malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics. Monitoring for this sign is critical in the early identification of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial priority assessments for malignant hyperthermia. Measuring serum potassium levels, evaluating renal function, and checking arterial blood gases are not specific initial assessments for malignant hyperthermia and would not aid in its early identification.

Question 4 of 5

A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary mechanism of action for this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density, making it effective in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.

Question 5 of 5

During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barr� syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barr� syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barr� syndrome.

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