Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with a history of cardiac dysrhythmias is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of dehydration. The nurse should anticipate that the physician will order;

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct: 1. Dehydration leads to electrolyte imbalances, which can exacerbate cardiac dysrhythmias. 2. Small frequent intake of fluids like juices, broth, or milk helps in gradual rehydration without overwhelming the cardiovascular system. 3. This approach allows for better absorption of fluids and nutrients, promoting hydration without causing sudden shifts in electrolyte levels. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Just drinking a glass of water every hour may not address electrolyte imbalances or provide adequate hydration for a client with cardiac dysrhythmias. C: NG replacement may not be necessary if the client can tolerate oral intake, and it is more invasive than needed. D: A rapid IV infusion may lead to sudden changes in electrolyte levels, potentially worsening the dysrhythmias.

Question 2 of 5

A client with suspected lung cancer is scheduled for thoracentesis as part of the diagnostic workup. The nurse reviews the client�s history for conditions that might contraindicate this procedure. Which condition is a contraindication for thoracentesis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A bleeding disorder. Thoracentesis involves inserting a needle into the pleural space to remove fluid. A bleeding disorder increases the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. This can lead to complications such as hematoma formation, pneumothorax, or even life-threatening bleeding. It is crucial to assess and address bleeding disorders before performing thoracentesis to ensure the safety of the client. A: A seizure disorder is not a contraindication for thoracentesis unless uncontrolled seizures could compromise the safety of the procedure. B: Anemia alone is not a contraindication for thoracentesis, as it does not directly increase the risk of complications during the procedure. C: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a contraindication for thoracentesis unless it is severe and compromises the client's ability to tolerate the procedure.

Question 3 of 5

A patient has cloudy penile discharge. For which additional symptoms of urethritis should the nurse assess?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Painful and frequent urination. Cloudy penile discharge is a common symptom of urethritis, which is inflammation of the urethra. Painful and frequent urination are classic symptoms of urethritis due to irritation and inflammation of the urinary tract. Throat or rectal infection (choice A) are not typically associated with urethritis. Chancres or vesicles on the genitals (choice B) are more indicative of sexually transmitted infections like syphilis or herpes. Oliguria and flank pain (choice D) are more suggestive of kidney or urinary tract issues rather than urethritis.

Question 4 of 5

A client has type1 diabetes. Her husband finds her unconscious at home and administers glucagons, 0.5 mg S.C. She awakens in 5 minutes .Why her husband offer a complex carbohydrate snack to her as soon as possible?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. After administering glucagon for hypoglycemia, the body may deplete its glycogen stores from the liver. Offering a complex carbohydrate snack will help restore liver glycogen, preventing secondary hypoglycemia. This is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels in individuals with type 1 diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because offering a complex carbohydrate snack is primarily aimed at restoring liver glycogen to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes, not to address nausea/vomiting, stimulate appetite, or decrease glycogen levels.

Question 5 of 5

A client asks the nurse about the four-point gait when partial weight bearing is permitted. What is the nurse�s BEST response?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in the four-point gait with partial weight bearing, the client should move the right crutch ahead first to provide support and stability, followed by the left foot. This sequence ensures proper weight distribution and balance. Moving both crutches together (B) may compromise stability. Moving the left crutch and right foot together (C) may cause uneven weight distribution. Moving both crutches and weaker leg together (D) may not provide adequate support for the weaker leg.

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