ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

Questions 84

ATI RN

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ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.

Question 2 of 5

A community health nurse is assessing an adolescent who is pregnant. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Understanding of infant care. When assessing a pregnant adolescent, the priority is to ensure that she has the necessary knowledge and skills to care for her newborn. This assessment is crucial in promoting the health and well-being of both the adolescent mother and her baby. Option A, social relationships with peers, though important, is not the priority during this assessment. Option B, plans for attending school while pregnant, is also important but does not take precedence over ensuring the adolescent's understanding of infant care. Option C, eligibility for Medicaid, is important for accessing healthcare services but is not the priority assessment in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is crucial for the provider to be informed about the client taking warfarin to adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical to report for surgical planning. A history of hypertension (B) is important but may not require immediate intervention for surgery. Eating a light breakfast 2 hours prior (C) is a normal preoperative instruction. Smoking history (D) is relevant for overall health assessment but is not as urgent as the use of warfarin before surgery.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about managing fluid intake. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "You should restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day." Clients with heart failure should limit their fluid intake to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen their condition. Choice A is incorrect because 2 liters of water per day may be excessive for someone with heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as unlimited fluid intake is not suitable for individuals with heart failure. Choice D is also incorrect as 3 liters per day may be too much fluid for a client with heart failure.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

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